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Recommended Syllabus for EKT Exam of AFCAT for Mechanical Engineering

Guys if you are thinking of finding any official syllabus for EKT exam then please stop, Board has not declared any official syllabus for EKT exam, every site has prepared syllabus on observation basis and claim to this will be devoided. You can find the syllabus for EKT exam for Mechanical Branch. EKT exam are given by those who have qualified AFCAT exam and opted Technical branch.
If you are having good knowledge of your field then you need not to worry for that you will clear it easily it is not so hard as you are thinking.
And Engineers have special capabilities everyone knows it, i don't want to mention. I have provided a post regarding:
Complete overview, Purpose, Process and Preparation Tips for EKT Exam please read it also.

Recommended syllabus for Mechanical Engineering:

1. Engineering Mathematics. 
Matrix Algebra, Eigen values and Eigen vectors, Theorems of integral calculus, Partial derivatives, Maxima and minima, Multiple integrals, Stokes, Gauss and Green’s theorems. First order differential equation (linear and nonlinear), Cauchy’s and Euler’s equations, Complex variables, Taylor’s and Laurent’ series, Sampling theorems, Mean, Median, Mode and Standard deviation, Random variables, Discrete and Continuous distributions, Fourier transform, Laplace transform, Z- transform.
2. Engineering Physics. 
Units for measurement, Description of Motion in One, Two and Three dimensions, Laws of Motion, Work, Energy and Power, Rotational Motion, Gravitation, Heat and Thermodynamics, Electrostatics, Electric Current, Magnetic Effect of Currents, Magnetism, Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Currents and Electromagnetic Waves, Ray Optics and Optical Instruments.
3. Engineering Graphics/ Engineering Drawing. 
Principles of orthographic projections, projections of points, lines, planes and solids, Section of solids, Isometric views, Auto-CAD.
Specialization Branch Topics
4. Engineering Mechanics. 
Equations of equilibrium in space and its application; first and second moments of area; simple problems on friction; kinematics of particles for plane motion; elementary particle dynamics. Generalized Hooke’s law and its application; design problems on axial stress, shear stress and bearing stress; material properties for dynamic loading; bending shear and stresses in beams; determination of principle stresses and strains - analytical and graphical; material behaviour and design factors for dynamic load; design of circular shafts for bending and torsional load only; deflection of beam for statically determinate problems; theories of failure.
5. Thermodynamics. 
Basic concept of First -law and second law of Thermodynamics; concept of entropy and reversibility; availability and unavailability and irreversibility. Classification and properties of fluids; incompressible and compressible fluids flows; effect of Mach number and compressibility; continuity momentum and energy equations; normal and oblique shocks; one dimensional isentropic flow; flow or fluids in duct with frictions that transfer. Flow through fans, blowers and compressors; axial and centrifugal flow configuration; design of fans and compressors
6. Theory of Machines.
Kinematic and dynamic analysis of plane mechanisms. Cams, Gears and epicyclic gear trains, flywheels, governors, balancing of rigid rotors, balancing of single and multicylinder engines, linear vibration analysis of mechanical systems (single degree of freedom), Critical speeds and whirling of shafts. flywheels, balancing of rotors and reciprocating machinery, balancing machines, governors, free and forced vibration of damped and undamped single degree of freedom systems, isolation, whirling of shafts, gyroscope. 
7. Fluid mechanics/Hydraulic Machines. 
Fluid flow concepts - Transport theorem - Fluid kinematics - Potential flow - Governing equations of Fluid flow - Dimensional Analysis - Viscous flow - Boundary Layer flows - Turbulence - Closed conduit flows - Hydrodynamic lubrication - Free surface flow - Compressible flows, Hydraulic Turbines: Impulse and Reaction Turbines - Centrifugal and Axial flow pumps.
8. Manufacturing Science. 
Foundry Technology, Melting furnaces, Special casting processes, Gating and riser design, Casting defects, Arc welding, TIG, MIG, submerged arc, resistance welding, Gas welding, Flash butt welding, Solid state welding, Welding metallurgy, Forming Technology, Powder metallurgy.
9. Materials Science.
Basic concepts on structure of solids; common ferrous and non-ferrous materials and their applications; heat-treatment of steels; non-metals- plastics, ceramics, composite materials and nano-materials.
10. Machine Drawing.
Development and Intersection of surfaces, Conventional representation of machine elements, materials, surface finish and tolerances - Sectional views and additional views - Drawing of Screw threads, locking devices, Fasteners, Keys and Cotters, Knuckle joints, Riveted Joints, Shaft Couplings and Bearings - Pipe Joints, Assembly and production drawings.
Allied Engineering
11. Automotive Engineering.
Introduction, power plant, fuel system, electrical system and other electrical fittings, lubricating system and cooling systems, chassis and transmission, axles, clutches, propeller shafts and differential, Condition for correct steering, steering gear mechanisms, automotive air conditioning, Tyres, effect of working parameters on knocking, reduction of knocking; Forms of combustion chamber for SI and CI engines; rating of fuels; additives; emission.
12. Power Plant Engineering.
Steam power plant, steam boilers, steam condensers, cooling towers, cogeneration and combined cycles, nuclear power plants, hydroelectric power plants, power plant economics.
13. Industrial Engineering.
System design: factory location- simple OR models; plant layout - methods based; applications of engineering economic analysis and break¬even analysis for product selection, process selection and capacity planning; predetermined time standards. System planning; forecasting methods based on regression and decomposition, design and balancing of multi model and stochastic assembly lines; inventory management - probabilistic inventory models for order time and order quantity determination; JIT systems; strategic sourcing; managing inter plant logistics.
14. Flight Mechanics.
Atmosphere: Properties, standard atmosphere. Classification of aircraft. Airplane (fixed wing aircraft) configuration and various parts. Airplane performance: Pressure altitude; equivalent, calibrated, indicated air speeds; Primary flight instruments: Altimeter, ASI, vSi, Turn-bank indicator. Drag polar; takeoff and landing; steady climb & descent,-absolute and service ceiling; cruise, cruise climb, endurance or loiter; load factor, turning flight, V-n diagram; Winds: head, tail & cross winds. Static stability: Angle of attack, sideslip; roll, pitch & yaw controls; longitudinal stick fixed & free stability, horizontal tail position and size; directional stability
15. Aircraft Structures.
Stress and Strain: Equations of equilibrium, constitutive law, strain-displacement relationship, compatibility equations, plane stress and strain, Airy’s stress function. Flight Vehicle Structures: Characteristics of aircraft structures and materials, torsion, bending and flexural shear. Flexural shear flow in thin- walled sections. Buckling. Failure theories. Loads on aircraft. Structural Dynamics: Free and forced vibration of discrete systems. Damping and resonance. Dynamics of continuous systems.
16. Aerodynamics.
Basic Fluid Mechanics: Incompressible irrotational flow, Helmholtz and Kelvin theorem, singularities and superposition, viscous flows, boundary layer on a flat plate. Airfoils and wings: Classification of airfoils, aerodynamic characteristics, high lift devices, Kutta Joukowski theorem; lift generation; thin airfoil theory; wing theory; induced drag; qualitative treatment of low aspect ratio wings. Viscous Flows: Flow separation, introduction to turbulence, transition, structure of a turbulent boundary layer. Compressible Flows: Dynamics and Thermodynamics of I-D flow, isentropic flow, normal shock, oblique shock.

Also Read:


Syllabus for EKT Exam of AFCAT for Mechanical Engineering

By Deepak Tomar →

Previous Question Paper for EKT Exam for Electrical and Electronics Engineering


Guys this is sample question paper for EKT exam for Electrical and Electronics engineering you can use this as a 
sample EKT Question Paper Set for Electrical and Electronics
EKT Question Paper Set for Electrical and Electronics


practice set, Questions asked in exam are not too tough regardless you know the basics of your field, just read out the maths basics: work on your aptitude well and prepare for your technical knowledge. luck also matters here as questions are objective base but don't try to attempt more questions by luck because negative marking is also there. Go and purchase a book from market for its preparation if you are serious enough, personally experienced that preparation portal don't have much info about EKT exams so its better to practice from a book.
I have provided a post regarding:


Q1. If sin x+(sin x) 2 =1, then
(a)          cos x+(cos x) 2 =1
(b)          cos x - (cos x) 2 =1
(c)          (cos x) 2 - (cos x) =1
(d)          (cos x) 2 + (cos x) 4 =1

Q2. Each edge of a cube is increased by 50%. The percentage increase in the surface area is
(a) 50
(b) 125
(c) 150
(d) 300

Q3. The value of log 4 + log 5 - log 2 is
(a) 1
(b) 7
(c) 10
(d) 9/2

Q4. The probability of drawing an ace or a spade or both from a deck of cards is
(a) 4/52
(b) 13/52
(c) 1/52
(d) 16/52

Q5. Let 0 be the angle between two vectors a and b, then cos 0 is equal to
(a) mod a + mod b
(b) (a )+ mod b
(c) mod (a+b)
(d) ab/[ mod a x mod b]



Q6. Pressure is
(a) scalar
(b) vector
(c) pseudo vector
(d) Poynting vector

Q7. The force of attraction or repulsion between charges follows
(a) square law
(b) inverse square law
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of (a) and (b)

Q8. The force experienced by a conductor of length L carrying current I placed parallel to the magnetic field of flux density B is
(a) BIL
(b) Zero
(c) HIL
(d) IL/B

Q9. A wave undergoes reflection from a rigid boundary. One of its characteristic parameters that changes is
(a) frequency
(b) phase
(c) velocity
(d) wavelength

Q10. The half-life period of a radioactive element is 140 days . After 560 days one gram of the element will reduce to
(a) 1/2 g
(b) 1/4 g
(c) 1/8 g
(d) 1/16 g

Q11. Which projection shows the object from angles in which the scales along each axis of object are equal
(a) auxiliary projection
(b) isometric projection
(c) orthographic projection
(d) objective projection

Q12. A charge of 2 coulombs every 0.5 sec signifies
(a) 4 A of current
(b) 1A of current
(c) 2A of current
(d) none of these

Q13. Transformer is a device used for
(a) converting AC to DC
(b) for stepping down AC Voltages
(c) both stepping up/down AC Voltages
(d) only stepping up AC Voltages

Q14. In order to get back the original signal from sampled signal , It is necessary to use
(a) low pass filter
(b) high pass filter
(c) band pass filter
(d) band reject filter

Q15. Superposition theorem can be applied only to circuits having elements
(a) non-linear
(b) passive
(c) linear bilateral
(d) resistive

Q16. Negative feedback reduces in amplifiers
(a) signal
(b) amplification
(c) distortion
(d) none of the above

Q17. Whenever the two inputs are same the output is high for
(a) EX-OR
(b) EX-NOR
(c) NOR
(d) NAND

Q18. In digital Electronics a nibble is a collection of
(a) 4 bits
(b) 2 bits
(c) 8 bits
(d) 10 bits

Q19. If both R=1 and S=1 in RS Flip Flop then Q is
(a) last value
(b) set
(c) reset
(d) forbidden

Q20. Ideal OP Amp's input resistance Is
(a) zero
(b) 100 k ohms
(c) Infinite
(d) 15 k ohm

Q21. A hard disk is divided into tracks which are further subdivided into
(a) clusters
(b) sectors
(c) vectors
(d) heads

Q22. Pentavalent impurities gives rise to more number of
(a) electrons in valence band
(b) electrons in conduction band
(c) holes in valence band
(d) holes in conduction band

Q23. A Varactor diode may be advantageous at microwave frequencies
(a) for electronic tuning
(b) as an oscillator
(c) as a parametric amplifier
(d) for frequency multiplication

Q24. When used in a circuit , a zener diode is always
(a) forward biased
(b) connected in series
(c) troubled by overheating
(d) reverse biased

Q25. The output from a laser is monochromatic , this means that it is
(a) infrared
(b) polarised
(c) narrow beam
(d) single frequency

Q26. In pneumatic control system, compensation is provided by
(a) bimetallic strip
(b) extension tube
(c) restriction volume tube
(d) none of the above

Q27. The main drawback of a feedback system is
(a) large time delay
(b) inefficiency
(c) inaccuracy
(d) unreliability

Q28. In an open loop control system
(a) control action is independent of the output
(b) control action depends upon human judgment
(c) internal system changes are automatically taken care of
(d) both (a) and (b)

Q29. Which of the following cannot be used to measure temperature
(a) thermocouple
(b) thermistor
(c) pyrometer
(d) thyristor

Q30. Poles are the complex frequencies of a transfer function where the response becomes
(a) infinite
(b) zero
(c) oscillatory
(d) decaying

Q31. The impulse response of an R-L circuit is a
(a) rising exponential function
(b) decaying exponential function
(c) step function
(d) parabolic function

Q32. The conversion of a signal representation from time domain to frequency domain is given by
(a) Fourier transform
(b) Shannon transform
(c) inverse Fourier transform
(d) inverse Laplace transform

Q33. The sampling theorem states that for a band limited signal of max frequency component fm
(a) fs>=2fm
(b) fs<=2fm
(c) fs<=2fm
(d) fs=fm

Q34. Voice signal frequency may lie anywhere between
(a) 0 to 20 KHz
(b) 0 to 1 MHz
(c) 15 Hz to 15 KHz
(d) none of these

Q35. Higher beamwidth of antenna implies
(a) higher directivity
(b) lesser directivity
(c) higher bandwidth
(d) lower bandwidth 

Q36. PWM signal can be generated by
(a) a monostable multivibrator
(b) an astable multivibrator
(c) integrating PPM signal
(d) differentiating PPM signal

Q37. In broadcast receiver most of the selectivity is achieved in
(a) IF section
(b) RF section
(c) audio stage
(d) mixer

Q38. The IF bandwidth of a radar receiver is inversely proportional to the
(a) pulse width
(b) PRF
(c) pulse Interval
(d) square root of peak transmitted power

Q39. Quantizing noise occurs in
(a) TDM
(b) FDM
(c) PCM
(d) PWM

Q40. In order to separate channels in a FDM receiver it is necessary to use
(a) AND gates
(b) OR gates
(c) integration
(d) band pass filter

Q41. The physical layer, in reference to the OSI model, defines
(a) data link procedures that provide for the exchange of data via frames that can be sent and received
(b) the interface between the X.25 network and packet mode device
(c) the virtual circuit interface to packet-switched service
(d) all of the above 

Q42. Which of the following device copies electrical signals from one Ethernet to another?
(a) bridge
(b) repeater
(c) hub
(d) passive hub

Q43. Which of the following TCP/IP protocol is used for transferring files from one machine to another?
(a) RARP
(b) ARP
(c) TCP
(d) FTP

Q44. What does the acronym ISDN stand for?
(a) Indian Standard Digital Network
(b) Integrated Services Digital Network
(c) Intelligent Services Digital Network
(d) Integrated Services Data Network

Q45. The following is measure of reproducibility in a measurement
(a) resolution
(b) drift
(c) precision
(d) fidelity

Q46. What part of the transformer is subjected to maximum heating
(a) core
(b) winding
(c) oil
(d) frame

Q47. The servo motor differs from ordinary motor in that it has
(a) low inertia & high torque
(b) high inertia & high torque
(c) low inertia & low torque
(d) high inertia & low torque

Q48. The speed of DC motor is
(a) always constant
(b) directly proportional to back emf
(c) directly proportional to flux
(d) inversely proportional to the product of back emf and flux

Q49. Which of the following DC generator cannot build up in an open circuit
(a) shunt
(b) series
(c) short shunt
(d) long shunt

Q50. The armature circuit resistance of DC generator is closest to
(a) 1 ohms
(b) 4n ohms
(c) 1000 ohms
(d) 20,000 ohms

Also check out

Previous Question Paper set for EKT exam of AFCAT: Electrical and Electronics Branch

By Deepak Tomar →

Previous Question Paper for EKT Exam for Computer Engineering


Guys this is sample question paper for EKT exam for computer Branch you can use this as a 
sample Question Paper for EKT: Computer engineering
Previous Question Paper for EKT exam

practice set, Questions asked in exam are not too tough regardless you know the basics of your field, just read out the maths basics: work on your aptitude well and prepare for your technical knowledge. luck also matters here as questions are objective base but don't try to attempt more questions by luck because negative marking is also there. Go and purchase a book from market for its preparation if you are serious enough, personally experienced that preparation portal don't have much info about EKT exams so its better to practice from a book.
Q1. If sin x+(sin x) 2 =1, then

(a)          cos x+(cos x) 2 =1

(b)          cos x - (cos x) 2 =1

(c)          (cos x) 2 - (cos x) =1
(d)          (cos x) 2 + (cos x) 4 =1
Q2. Each edge of a cube is increased by 50%. The percentage increase in the surface area is
(a) 50
(b) 125
(c) 150
(d) 300

Q3. The value of log 4 + log 5 - log 2 is
(a) 1
(b) 7
(c) 10
(d) 9/2

Q4. The probability of drawing an ace or a spade or both from a deck of cards is
(a) 4/52
(b) 13/52
(c) 1/52
(d) 16/52

Q5. Let 0 be the angle between two vectors a and b, then cos 0 is equal to
(a) mod a + mod b
(b) (a )+ mod b
(c) mod (a+b)
(d) ab/[ mod a x mod b]

Q6. Pressure is
(a) scalar
(b) vector
(c) pseudo vector
(d) Poynting vector

Q7. The force of attraction or repulsion between charges follows
(a) square law
(b) inverse square law
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of (a) and (b)

Q8. The force experienced by a conductor of length L carrying current I placed parallel to the magnetic field of flux density B is
(a) BIL
(b) Zero
(c) HIL
(d) IL/B

Q9. A wave undergoes reflection from a rigid boundary. One of its characteristic parameters that changes is
(a) frequency
(b) phase
(c) velocity
(d) wavelength

Q10. The half-life period of a radioactive element is 140 days . After 560 days one gram of the element will reduce to
(a) 1/2 g
(b) 1/4 g
(c) 1/8 g
(d) 1/16 g

Q11. Which projection shows the object from angles in which the scales along each axis of object are equal
(a) auxiliary projection
(b) isometric projection
(c) orthographic projection
(d) objective projection

Q12. In binary system the value (111)2 is equal to decimal
(a) (7)10
(b) (3)10
(c) (5)10
(d) (8)10

Q13. when o/p of a flip-flop is used as clock I/p for next flip-flop the counter is called
(a) ripple counter
(b) asynchronous counter
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) synchronous counter

Q14. The octal equivalent of (10011 )2 is
(a) (32)8
(b) (52)8
(c) (23)8
(d) None of the above

Q15. Which of the following is used as storage locations both in the ALU and the control section of a computer?
(a) accumulator
(b) register
(c) adder
(d) decoder

Q16. The Central Processing Unit (CPU)Consists of:
(a) Input, output and processing units
(b) Control unit, primary storage, and secondary storage
(c) Control unit, arithmetic-logic unit, and primary storage
(d) Control Unit, processing, primary storage

Q17. If some device requires urgent service, normal execution of programs may sometimes be pre-empted using
(a) an interrupt signal
(b) a request to memory modules
(c) DMA
(d) all of the above

Q18. The fan-out capability of a digital building block can be defined as
(a) the number of inputs that one output can transmit to
(b) the amount of cooling required for fanning the hear out
(c) the number of inputs that can transmit to one input
(d) that the unit can scan

Q19. In computer terminology a compiler means
(a) a person who computes source programs
(b) the same thing as a programmer
(c) key punch operator
(d) a program which translates source program into object program.

Q20. The ascending order of a data Hierarchy is :
(a) bit - bytes - field - record - file - database
(b) bit - bytes - record - field - file - database
(c) bytes - bit - field - record - file - database
(d) bytes - bit - record - field - file - database

Q21. The processes at the most detailed level of the data flow diagrams are called
(a) transform descriptions
(b) functional primitives
(c) data flows
(d) interfaces

Q22. A station in a network forwards incoming packets by placing them on its shortest output queue. What routing algorithm is being used?
(a) hot potato routing
(b) flooding
(c) static routing
(d) delta routing

Q23. The action of parsing the source program into the proper syntactic classes is known as
(a) syntax analysis
(b) lexical analysis
(c) interpretation analysis
(d) general syntax analysis

Q24. An Interpreter is
(a) a program that places programs into memory and prepares them for execution
(b) a program that automates the translation of assembly language into machine language
(c) program that accepts a program written in a high level. language and produces an object program
(d) is a program that appears to execute a source program as if it were machine language

Q25. A system program that combines the separately compiled modules of a program into a form suitable for execution
(a) assembler
(b) linking loader
(c) cross compiler
(d) load and go

Q26. A required characteristic of an online real-time system is :
(a) more than one CPU
(b) offline batch processing
(c) no delay in processing
(d) all of the above

Q27. Banker's algorithm for resource allocation deals with
(a) deadlock prevention
(b) deadlock avoidance
(c) deadlock recovery
(d) mutual exclusion

Q28. Situations where two or more processes are reading or writing some shared data and the final result depends on who runs precisely when, are called
(a) race conditions
(b) critical sections
(c) mutual exclusions
(d) message passing

Q29. Which of the following scheduling objectives should be applied to the following: the system should admit jobs to create a mix that will keep most devices busy
(a) to be fair
(b) to balance resource utilization
(c) to obey priorities
(d) to be predictable

Q30. The master list of an indexed file
(a) is sorted in ascending order
(b) contains only a list of keys and record numbers
(c) has a number assigned to each record
(d) both (b) and (c)

Q31. In SQL, which command(s) is(are) used to recompile a stored function?
(a) SET FUNCTION
(b) SET STORED FUNCTION
(c) ALTER FUNCTION
(d) all of the above

Q32. Updating a database means
(a) revising the file structure
(b) reorganizing the database
(c) modifying or adding record occurrences
(d) all of the above

Q33. The relational model uses some unfamiliar terminology. A tuple is equivalent to a
(a) record
(b) field
(c) file
(d) database

Q34. What type of software is most useful in financial planning and calculation?
(a) graphics
(b) communication
(c) database
(d) spreadsheet

Q35. A channel for communicating across a boundary between two or more sub-systems is known as
(a) interface
(b) actigram
(c) walk through
(d) data path

Q36. System prototyping helps the designer in
(a) making the programmers understand how the system will function
(b) communicating to the user, quickly, how the system, when developed, will look and get a feedback
(c) giving a demo of the software, to the system manager to whom he reports
(d) both (a) and (b)

Q37. The physical layer, in reference to the OSI model, defines
(a) data link procedures that provide for the exchange of data via frames that can be sent and received
(b) the interface between the X.25 network and packet mode device
(c) the virtual circuit interface to packet-switched service
(d) all of the above

Q38. Which of the following device copies electrical signals from one Ethernet to another?
(a) bridge
(b) repeater
(c) hub
(d) passive hub

Q39. Which of the following TCP/IP protocol is used for transferring files from one machine to another?
(a) RARP
(b) ARP
(c) TCP
(d) FTP

Q40. What does the acronym ISDN stand for?
(a) Indian Standard Digital Network
(b) Integrated Services Digital Network
(c) Intelligent Services Digital Network
(d) Integrated Services Data Network

Q41. Four bits are used for packet sequence numbering in a sliding window protocol used in a computer network. What is the maximum window size?
(a) 4
(b) 8
(c) 15
(d) 16

Q42. If you get both local and remote echoes, every character you type will appear on the screen
(a) once
(b) twice
(c) three times
(d) never

Q43. Voice signal frequency may lie anywhere between
(a) 0 to 20 KHz
(b) 0 to 1 MHz
(c) 15 Hz to 15 KHz
(d) none of these

Q44. PWM signal can be generated by
(a) a monostable multivibrator
(b) an astable multivibrator
(c) integrating PPM signal
(d) differentiating PPM signal

Q45. What part of the transformer is subjected to maximum heating
(a) core
(b) winding
(c) oil
(d) frame

Q46. The servo motor differs from ordinary motor in that it has
(a) low inertia & high torque
(b) high inertia & high torque
(c) low inertia & low torque
(d) high inertia & low torque

Q47. The speed of DC motor is
(a) always constant
(b) directly proportional to back emf
(c) directly proportional to flux
(d) inversely proportional to the product of back emf and flux

Q48. Negative feedback reduces in amplifiers
(a) signal
(b) amplification
(c) distortion
(d) none of the above

Q49. Whenever the two inputs are same the output is high for
(a) EX-OR
(b) EX-NOR
(c) NOR
(d) NAND

Q50. A hard disk is divided into tracks which are further subdivided into
(a) clusters
(b) sectors
(c) vectors
(d) heads 

Also check out

PreviousQuestion Paper for EKT exam of AFCAT: Computer Engineering

By Deepak Tomar →